For centuries, most Christian traditions have interpreted passages such as Leviticus 18:22, Romans 1:26–27, and 1 Corinthians 6:9–10 as prohibiting homosexual sexual relationships.

But some modern Christians and biblical scholars argue that these passages must be understood within their ancient cultural context. They contend that the biblical writers were addressing practices such as exploitation, prostitution, idolatrous sexual behavior, or relationships structured very differently from modern committed same-sex relationships.

Traditional interpreters respond that this distinction isn’t present in the texts themselves and that the Bible consistently places sexual relationships within a male-female framework.

That leaves an uncomfortable but important question:

Does Scripture prohibit same-sex relationships themselves, or are modern Christians applying ancient prohibitions to relationships the biblical writers never specifically addressed?

What does the text actually support when modern politics and personal feelings are removed from the discussion?